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Titer number confusion

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I was diagnosed with HSV2 about 6 months ago. There were two people who it could have come from; one was tested and came back negative and the second had an IgG test done and his number came back at .81. I know that anything below a .89 is considered negative, but how is this so? In order to have antibodies in your body for ANY virus, even a cold virus, doesn't it mean that you had to have been exposed to it at one point?

Also, SUPPOSEDLY it has been about 16 weeks since the time he could have been exposed to the virus and contracted it. If he was positive, wouldnt it have been higher than .81 by now?

I just think that a number so close should not be written off as negative, but because of the amount of time that has passed by I am unsure that I should think so. Its crazy how difficult it is for doctors to explain this concept...

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Are you certain the first person was specifically tested for herpes? If he got a standard STD test he would not have been tested for it. Herpes is so common they do not include it in standard STD tests.

And while most people will test positive at 16 weeks not everyone develops antibodies at the same rate. I have a good friend who did not test positive until after week 20.

Come to the "Chat Room" and you will meet many nice fellow Herpsters who can offer you their support.

Good luck!


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Yes, I explained to the first that he needed a blood test and that a standard STD test would not cut it and apparently he went and was negative.

I guess I just had a hard time comprehending how a number (again Person II's number .81) was to just be written off when it is only .08 away from being positive. Ive done much research on this and have failed at finding anything to justify this.

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