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Ghsv1 unprotected sex and no transmission?


Lovelylady1996

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Is this possible? Me and ex partner, (who gave me ghsv1 via cold sore on their lip) had unprotected sex (and yes, he was obviously aware of my ghsv1 because he there during my diagnosis) but we had alot of unprotected sex after my initial OB healed and I didn't pass it to him genitally. Is this because he has a history of cold sores and has built up antibodies? None of the sex was protected. I haven't had a known ob or clear symptoms since (2months ago since diagnosis). It's known I am most contagious 6 months after exposure so why didn't he get it genitally? 

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Is this because he has a history of cold sores and has built up antibodies? None of the sex was protected. I haven't had a known ob or clear symptoms since (2months ago since diagnosis). It's known I am most contagious 6 months after exposure so why didn't he get it genitally? 

It's a contributing factor. He already has immunity to HSV1 if he's the one that gave it to you. It's very very rare, but sometimes HSV1 can go to the genital area even with immunity from an existing HSV1 oral infection. Also, you aren't as contagious as you think. Sure you're at your "most contagious" stage in terms of being post-infection, but remember that "most contagious" doesn't mean very much when the chances of transmission are already so low in the absence of symptoms.

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Males with HSV-1 regardless get a pretty good deal in terms of immunity given physiology. There are no documented cases of a male with an established oral HSV-1 infection obtaining a genital HSV-1 infection.

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Males with HSV-1 regardless get a pretty good deal in terms of immunity given physiology. There are no documented cases of a male with an established oral HSV-1 infection obtaining a genital HSV-1 infection.

any documented cases of this happening to women? :p

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Also no, but for the same reason as women are more susceptible to genital HSV infections than men, the chances that a secondary infection of the same type would occur for women would be higher than for males.

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Yes, well we know all about this don't we  I can be that documented case. I'm going to go and report it to someone, somewhere

Edited by Sillybrain2
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I have both oral hsv 1 and genital hsv 1!! I may not be "documented" in a medical journal, but all my medical files state I have oral hsv 1 infection and genital hsv 1 infection. This whole approach of saying "no documented cases" needs to change. It's limiting our knowledge on how hsv spreads and behaves as well as feeds vulnerable people with inaccurate information. You can't deny someone's diagnosis just because you haven't lived it yourself or read a "documented case". How about changing it to an experienced case because they are actually living it and can stop discounting their situation because writing in a journal doesn't say it yet. Do you think most people who have both hsv 1 oral and genital would have the opportunity to be published in a medical journal anyway? No one has asked me but would happily if asked and bring with me all the laboratory proof.  

Edited by oneday
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Oneday you should certainly present yourself for a case study. As you say, every ganglion in your body is infected with HSV-1! It is the most amazing multiforme case that needs the appropriate testing. Please get this done as at the present moment all your medical records record is a positive HSV-1 blood test but you haven't had a positive swab from anywhere on your body to this point (that's right isn't it). The whole understanding would be advanced incredibly if you could.

And there are documented cases male and female of oral and genital HSV-1, just that they were contracted at the same or similar time. And that's the issue for any of us! How can we prove that you, Sillybrain2 and many others on here didn't contract it orally and genitally at the same time?

Please help us nut this through, how is this going to be possible?

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I can prove I didn't have it at the same time because I wasn't sexually active when I contracted hsv 1 oral. A few friends I have had cold sores very frequently and I borrowed their lip glosses. That was a year before getting hsv 1 genitally. I was sexually assaulted. The guy spat on me down there as well as spitting into his hand, a week later I started getting itchy down there, there were 3 bumps which increased and spread to the entire area. It took almost a month for it to go away. During which time I had swab and blood test. Swab was -ve but it was taken when the 3 bumps were present and they were intact-I don't think there was enough virus on the skin to be an effective sample. That outbreak healed and because swab was -ve I thought it must not be herpes. But within a month another outbreak started and this time it was ulcers which were very painful. I went to the Doctor again and had my blood test repeated. The doctor looked at them and said it looked like hsv 1, blood test was only +ve for hsv 1. The repeat blood test was -ve for hsv 2, 12 months later only +ve for hsv 1. Now 5 years later, still that same. 

Edited by oneday
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No to calves and feet. But yes to under arms due to using same shaver and yes back and chest-which was from exfoliating when I already had broken skin there. 

Edited by oneday
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Whether you want to believe me or not is your prerogative, personally not doing so only limits how this virus works. If you don't mind, I don't want to answer anymore questions because the experience I went through was very traumatic and I find it very hard to talk about. I have already disclosed more information I am happy to in the hope people will recognize cases like mine occur.  

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So the story is:

Contracted oral herpes from lip gloss. First ever blood test is HSV-1 positive. Outbreaks genitally, under arms spread by shaving, back and chess spread by exfoliating. No positive swabs from any location to this time.

With a bit more evidence you have a great case study.

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To try to summarise a straight answer:

Shedding rates are very low with genital HSV-1, there may have only been a few occasions in the 6 months when there was enough of the virus present to cause infection, which only lasts a few hours... and you'd have to have sex at that particular time!

Males have low transmission rates given physiology. Even with an elevated chance of infection, the chance per episiode may not exceed 1 in 3,000

Lastly, it would appear that a male with an established HSV-1 oral infection may mean zero or close to zero chance at worse of a further genital infection.

Thus even if you had sex twice a day for that six months, there is still only a small chance of infection (10%?) that may have been cut to zero by his immune system.

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To try to summarise a straight answer:

Shedding rates are very low with genital HSV-1, there may have only been a few occasions in the 6 months when there was enough of the virus present to cause infection, which only lasts a few hours... and you'd have to have sex at that particular time!

Males have low transmission rates given physiology. Even with an elevated chance of infection, the chance per episiode may not exceed 1 in 3,000

Lastly, it would appear that a male with an established HSV-1 oral infection may mean zero or close to zero chance at worse of a further genital infection.

Thus even if you had sex twice a day for that six months, there is still only a small chance of infection (10%?) that may have been cut to zero by his immune system.

Thank you, this is exactly the information I was looking for 

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