newgirl91

Likelihood of transmission

5 posts in this topic

Hi there,

I am just wondering if anyone can provide insight/comfort.

I tested positive for ghsv-1 about 7 years ago, after oral sex with someone who presumably had/was developing a coldsore. I had a fairly bad outbreak, which prompted me to visit the doctor. A swab confirmed the diagnosis.

Flash forward 7 years - I have had maayybbe 2 outbreaks since. I don't even remember them, which speaks to how little this virus has impacted my life. I was with my last boyfriend for about 4 years, and he never showed symptoms of an OB. Long story short, he and I are no longer together, and I had casual sex with a new guy. I disclosed the fact that I am ghsv-1 positive after we had sex, which I still feel incredibly guilty about, but he knows now, at least.

Here is the problem - we engaged in sexual activity on Saturday evening (oral was not protected, but vaginal sex was). On Monday, I developed what I believe to be a yeast infection and have been treating it with medication and cream. However, today (Wednesday) I am experiencing a bit more localized discomfort (maybe it's tingling? I have never experienced it before), which has prompted paranoia/anxiety that I am actually about to have an OB (even though there are no blisters present). My concern is that because it is ghsv-1, and I have had it for so long, it could just be really mild.

So, getting to my question - if this really is a prodrome symptom, and I am about to have an OB, was I super contagious when I engaged in sex with the guy on the weekend? We used protection, except for when he went down on me. What are the chances he could have gotten it from me?

Thanks for any help you can provide :)

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the short answer is yes, he could have gotten it from you.  of course, he might already have it, as a lot of people do.

best advice is to be more careful and more upfront.  imo, if there is ANYTHING "strange" going on down there, be it tingles or whatever, abstain.  

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Thanks for your response. We were careful, with the exception of oral, which I guess ideally I should just remain abstinent from to be 100% sure I don't transmit. I will also abstain for now until I'm sure everything is "normal" again. But I began experiencing the concerning symptoms retroactively, by about 2-3 days, which is why I am concerned and was wondering if anyone had any insights as to transmission rates BEFORE symptoms arise :)

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well, like i said, yeah, u could have passed it.  its called shedding and you can shed at ANY time, symptoms or no, strange sensations or no.  asymptomatic shedding is how this tricky virus is so good at spreading.

u can use a dental dam for oral, which would be a good idea since type1 is native to the mouth.  (its a lot harder to get type2 in the mouth, although not impossible).

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It seems to me there's not much info on ghsv1. I've had the "that's the good type to have" what!!! Being told I'll never have another ob.. Doesn't shed as much... Who knows this???  Oh another one hard to pass woman to man..genital to genital... Doubtful you'll get symptoms..

I wish there was more accurate information and a cure. .  

AusHopeful likes this

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