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Can you give someone s1 if you have s2?


Thissucksd

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I have all the symptoms of genital herpes and my doctor is positive it's herpes, I'm just waiting for those damn test results to finally come back to be 100% sure, even though I am 100% sure. My boyfriend just got his diagnosis back of mouth herpes, s1. He did not give me herpes, he has never been with anyone else besides me, I slept with someone else and then I showed symptoms, and then he showed symptoms. I got genital herpes from someone else, and then my bf got mouth herpes by going down on me the night before my first outbreak. My question is, because I gave him herpes, and he now knows he has s1, does that mean that I also have s1? Or can you contract s1 from s2 and I might have s2? 

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Hey there, I know it is a confusing time and we will try to straighten things out here.

A lot of people have oral HSV-1 (70% of the population) and your boyfriend is one such person. He cannot get HSV-1 again, nor does it morph into HSV-2. HSV-1 is a separate virus from HSV-2. HSV is not defined by locationas either location can be infected with either virus.

In the week before the sores, did you have sex with both partners including oral sex?

Either way when you get your swab back make sure it has been correctly typed.

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This is the timeline. I had sex with someone else, we used a condom, but he did go down on me. Then, two days later, I had sex with my boyfriend. We had to stop having sex because I had pain down there, which I assumed was because I had recently had sex with someone else and was sore. I had been a little sore down there ever since having sex with the other guy, but thought nothing of it. That night I had sex with my boyfriend, it was painful to the point we stopped having intercourse and just had oral sex. The next day, it gets really painful and my first outbreak begins. A few days later, he comes down with a 102 fever that lasts a couple days. He gets two sores in his mouth, his gums bleed randomly one time, and had a white throat. We both get checked. I am still waiting for my results. He got his back, that he has hsv1. We have been having sex together for over 8 years, and this is the first time anything like this has happened. I get that it seems like it could be my boyfriend causing this, but when you look at the timeline, I don't think so. So, again, because he now knows he has hsv1 which is probably from going down on me, does that mean that I also have hsv1 genitally?

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His HSV-1 positive is most likely a childhood oral infection. I doubt it is in any way related to recent events.

If you have genital herpes, then the once off partner is in the frame. Herpes lesions take at least two days to appear.

i think you can only await test results for more clarity.

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Wilsoln, I am confused. Why do you doubt that his HSV-1 is related to the recent events? It just so happened to pop up after 8 years of sex after I just started having my first herpes outbreak and slept with someone else for the first time? It seems to fit perfectly in this series of events, I just don't understand why you don't think so. I will of course wait for my test results to be sure, but I was just trying to speculate. But anyway, to be clear, if you have one strain of herpes, like if I have HSV-2, does that mean I can only give people HSV-2? Or could I somehow give him or anyone else HSV-1? Dumb question, just want to be sure

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If you have hsv2 you can only give hsv2 likewise for hsv1. Did your current bf had an ob in the mouth area in the days following sex?..what prompted him to get tested..also what tests did he do..if it was a blood test what was his igg level

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16 hours ago, Thissucksd said:

Wilsoln, I am confused. Why do you doubt that his HSV-1 is related to the recent events? It just so happened to pop up after 8 years of sex after I just started having my first herpes outbreak and slept with someone else for the first time? It seems to fit perfectly in this series of events, I just don't understand why you don't think so. I will of course wait for my test results to be sure, but I was just trying to speculate. But anyway, to be clear, if you have one strain of herpes, like if I have HSV-2, does that mean I can only give people HSV-2? Or could I somehow give him or anyone else HSV-1? Dumb question, just want to be sure

You can be sure that HSV-2 is HSV-2 and remains that way. There is no morphing from type 1 to 2 or vice versa.

It sounds like your boyfriend tested very soon after possible infection. If so, you cannot test strongly positive on an IgG test as it takes time to produce antibodies. Hence the HSV-1 result being positive indicates an older infection. Note that I’ve said nothing about HSV-2.

Did you tell uour boyfriend about sex with another man?

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He got tested about 4 days after he started to get symptoms, which were the fever, sore in his mouth, bloody gums etc. I got my results back, I have HSV-1 genitally. I feel positive that I gave him that from oral sex. He has never had a cold sore before or symptoms like this. And yes, he knows I slept with someone else. The person I slept with told me today his ex had cold sores. Issue solved. I don't really get why people want to say my boyfriend already had this, it clearly makes sense that I gave it to him. 

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No that's not correct at all. If a test 4 days after symptoms is positive (IgG antibodies) then it is proof positive that he has had HSV-1 well before these events. There is little reason not to suspect that he has had oral HSV-1 since childhood. About half of people so infected have no living memory of cold sores.

It now seems almost certain that both men have HSV-1.

Your boyfriend's oral issues may be related to herpes (although I doubt it) but have nothing to do with a recent infection given the proof provided by the blood test.

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