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Is this possible?


HiMaint57

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Hi, new here.  I was married 37 years before divorcing in 2017. I have never had any other sexual partners other than my ex--husband. 

When we were dating, he told me that he got cold sores,  but that he would make sure we never had oral sex if he had any cold sores/canker sores.  That made sense to me.  We didn't do oral that often; I would say is been at least 30 years.  We haven't had sex at all for at least 10 years (hence the divorce).

This week I'm being tested for genital herpes.  Is it possible that he transmitted herpes to me via oral sex 30 years or more ago and it didn't show up until now? Would be have been able to transmit it even without cold sore symptoms?

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It is possible to transmit without cold sores present. This requires the person to be shedding a lot of the virus on their lips at the time of oral sex. Note that it’s herpes is highly likely to be HSV-1. If this is transmitted during oral sex then the person has genital HSV-1.

The real question is whether you might have been infected AND not have a noticeable outbreak. With a primary HSV-1 infection, this is highly unlikely... it’s a gate crasher in every sense!

Note that there is not a blood test for genital herpes, only for HSV-1 and HSV-2 antibodies.

It is also possible you have a HSV-1 infection orally from childhood and have no living memory of cold sores. This would have meant that a genital infection from a partner’s oral HSV-1 infection had a negligible chance owing to the presence of the immune response.

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Chicken pox is the HSV-3 virus or more commonly known as Varicella Zoster Virus.

It does sound like you carry the HSV-1 virus orally. This provides you with strong immunity in your genital region from further HSV-1 infection. Similar to your former husband, disclosing your oral HSV-1 to partners might be considered.

The only open issue is hour HSV-2 status, but the chances here seem negligible.

 

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