FIRST TIME TO WEBSITE. HELP.... Had a single small spot show up on my penis. Never had anything like it occur previously. Showed up the morning after having oral and vaginal sex with my wife, each of the two previous days, like 6 hours after intercourse. Went to my doctor the next day and he was unsure but suggested testing for HSV-1 and HSV-2 as precaution. Lab Test Results:
IGG HSV-1 = <0.90 Negative
IGG HSV-2 = 9.55 (>1.09)
Needless to say I'm trying to wrap my brain around all of this.... Is it possible the above is a false positive? Have been tested in past and been negative. I don't know how I contracted it. All very upsetting but my real concern is my wife.
I'm married in a monogamous relationship and have not been with anyone else for over 3 years. My wife and I are very sexually active, having sex multiple times a week most weeks since August 2015. I think the longest we have gone without sex is like 2 weeks and that's been very rare. My wife has oral cold sore out breaks multiple times a year but to my knowledge hasn't had any genital herpe symptoms and has never been tested for HSV 1 or 2.
What is the likelihood my wife has HSV-2? That she contacted HSV-2 from me, that I contracted it from her or that we both came into the relationship with it? The reality is none of this really matters, I'm just so upset that it involves her. My worst nightmare.
Since the spot popped up I have refrained from being sexual with my wife. Felt like it would be a breach of trust to be sexual with her without telling her there could be an issue. I wanted the test results first and wanted to discuss with her so, if there was an issue, we could work through this together. Its been two weeks and she has started making comments about not having sex and asking if something is wrong SO I have to address this now.
Shouldn't she go to the dr? Shouldn't we go together? Shouldn't she get tested?
My doctor, whom she goes to for general stuff as well, has acted like no big deal. Told me I could have had this for years or gotten it six months ago, no one knows for sure and people have this and deal with this all the time. Obviously, if she is negative iy can't be a resent infection. He has suggested suppression therapy of 500mg Valacycovir daily for each of us.
Any thoughts or comments? Thank you.
Since May I have been taking Valtrex. At first it was 500mg once a day then it increased to 1000mg once a day in June after frequent outbreaks persisted. I've had a total of 9 outbreaks since May and was diagnosed with hsv2 in March of this year. The past three weeks I've had severe dizziness, especially when lying down and getting up in the mornings. Today my doctor suggested taking acyclovir 400mg twice a day. Has anyone switched from acyclovir to valtrex and experienced better results/less breakouts?
Hey there! I'm hoping you guys can help me sort this out, as I'm really frustrated at the moment. Apologies in advance for the novel!
So the situation is this...
Trying to be a responsible adult, I had my doctor order a full STD panel a few years ago. In Dec 2015 I tested positive on an IgG test for HSV-2. My value was >8.0. Had them retest me again a year later (again an IgG) and my value came back as "positive" again (with no number value - the test just either said positive or negative.) When I had these tests done I wasn't showing any symptoms and I didn't have any scrapings or cultures run. So it was just the IgG tests. The positive result came as a huge shock to me. And my doctor at the time never talked to me about the results. So I just assumed from that day onward that I had HSV-2 - and he prescribed me Valacylovir basically because I asked him to. (Because I'd read that's what one should take.)
So what do you all think? Do I have HSV-2? I've been living with the impression since the IgG test - and the mental anguish - that I DO indeed have HSV-2. Her comments have made me feel like wanting to know my own medical status is asking too much and that I'm making too big a deal over potentially having herpes.
Ok, so I just got a response from her (I wrote her a somewhat disgruntled letter last night.) She makes the distinction between "active" disease and "exposure." And that "you are not considered to have active disease until you have diagnosed lesions." Sounds like it's usually the other way around and the IgG test is done to confirm the swabs/culture. Anyway, she says she's following the CDC guidelines. But I think she's misunderstanding what the CDC guidelines are:
"Asymptomatic persons who receive a diagnosis of HSV-2 infection by type-specific serologic testing should receive the same counseling messages as persons with symptomatic infection. In addition, such persons should be educated about the clinical manifestations of genital herpes. Because nearly all HSV-2 infections are sexually acquired, the presence of type-specific HSV-2 antibody IMPLIES ANGONITAL INFECTION. Intermittent asymptomatic shedding occurs in persons with genital HSV-2 infection, even in those with longstanding or clinically silent infection. "
I read that to say that, yes, I have it, despite being "clinically silent" (i.e. no lesions) and that I'm still contagious. I don't think she should be telling people that they don't have "active disease" when they're still ultimately contagious. Do you all agree with my conclusion?
(And btw, I live in CA and apparently we have a law now that says you must disclose if you know you're positive. So it's even more important that I know for sure.)
Thanks so much for your advice and feedback!!
I'm kinda new to this and have a question about being in a long-term relationship with someone who is HSV-2 negative.
So there is someone I'm hoping to date (haven't disclosed yet) and I'm hoping he will like me enough to still want to go ahead once he hears I have HSV-2.
So, crucial to the story is that I have a genetic disorder that means I cannot take the birth control pill, and hence have to use condoms.
So, my question is, if I'm taking anti-virals and he is HSV negative, obviously we have to use condoms for actual intercourse (so as to avoid pregnancy) but does it mean that there can be no genital skin to skin contact whatsoever at all? What is the chance of me passing it on to him if I'm on the meds but we fool around without a condom?
I just have a feeling that always having to wear a condom to even touch somebody is going to be a deal breaker for him and most guys. Any advice on this from people in relationships with non-H partners would be so very appreciated!
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