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raka

The immune response of HSV resistance

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raka

https://www.fredhutch.org/en/labs/vaccine-and-infectious-disease/news/publication-spotlight/the-immune-response-of-hsv-resistance.html

 

Found this one interesting. Though I didn't understood it clearly

Edited by raka

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GlitterDx

Wow theres a HSV-2 resistant population? Might be why my so of many years hasn't caught HSV 2 from me to date.?

 

Shortened version....

 Previous work by VIDI scientists found a small group of people who had been exposed to HSV-2, but managed to stave off infection. These people, dubbed “immune seronegative” by the researchers, had immune responses to HSV-2 in the absence of detectable virus or clinical symptoms of genital herpes.

They found that the immune seronegative people tended to respond to different proteins than HSV-2 positive people.  Specifically, immune seronegative people made responses to HSV-2 proteins produced at early stages of viral infection, but not to virus proteins present during later stages of infection, suggesting that this HSV-2 resistant population may be able to block the virus from progressing past early infection.

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NeedFasterHope

Agreed, very interesting but I am a little unclear as well.  So seronegative people do or don't show symptoms???   And a test result would be negative??? 

I think I am going to try to contact them to ask some questions.  This could play into my situation because no scenario + test results = how I got HSV-1.   Nothing completely adds up and it consumes my mind every day trying to figure out how I got HSV-1.

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vzhe

Let me interpret this: These people have a learned immune response, but no symptoms or detectable HSV anywhere.

Most likely scenario: they got exposed to a rather small quantity of the virus, and their immune system was effective in eradicating it before it could seed a lot of nerve cells. they might still be infected, but in such a minor way that they don't get symptoms and nor can they spread it. they are functionally immune.

this is the goal of vaccination, and it probably happens quite regularly accidentally if someone's first exposure is a low dose.

someone could probably intentionally achieve this effect by taking antivirals during an intentional self-infection with a very low dose.

if we were smarter about it, we could also make vaccines to achieve this result much faster and sooner.

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NeedFasterHope

Thanks vzhe!! I appreciate your additional explanation.  I'm trying to find out if it would be possible for someone to be exposed, pass it, but test negative and no have symptoms?  I thought maybe this theory was the start to my answer.

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